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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
What are the features of GUIDELINE NO: FAA-G10?
I. The aim of these Guidelines is to provide guidance on the controls, processes and procedures that the MAS expects licensed financial advisers to implement.
II. These Guidelines do not apply to persons who are exempted from the requirements in the Notice On Recommendations On Investment Products.
III. Switching includes a situation where a client disposes of, or reduces his interest in, all or part of an investment product.
IV. Monitor switching from one designated investment product to another designated investment product in a manner that would not be detrimental to the clients.
Correct
Guideline No: FAA-G10 is issued pursuant to Section 64 of the FAA. The aim of these Guidelines is to provide guidance on the controls, processes and procedures that the MAS expects licensed financial advisers and exempt financial advisers to implement, in order to monitor switching and ensure that their representatives do not advise clients to switch from one designated investment product referred to as “original product”) to another designated investment product (referred to as “replacement product”) in a manner that would be detrimental to the clients.
Incorrect
Guideline No: FAA-G10 is issued pursuant to Section 64 of the FAA. The aim of these Guidelines is to provide guidance on the controls, processes and procedures that the MAS expects licensed financial advisers and exempt financial advisers to implement, in order to monitor switching and ensure that their representatives do not advise clients to switch from one designated investment product referred to as “original product”) to another designated investment product (referred to as “replacement product”) in a manner that would be detrimental to the clients.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which is not a factor to determine if the switch is appropriate as stated in Notice No: FAA-N16?
I. Whether the client suffers any penalty for terminating the original product.
II. Whether the client will incur any transaction cost without gaining any real benefit from the switch.
III. Whether the replacement product confers a lower level of benefit at a higher cost.
IV. Whether the replacement product is less suitable for the client.
Correct
In considering whether a switch is appropriate, the supervisor should take into account the following factors as stated in Notice No: FAA-N16:
(a) whether the client suffers any penalty for terminating the original product;
(b) whether the client will incur any transaction cost without gaining any real benefit from the switch;
(c) whether the replacement product confers a lower level of benefit at a higher cost or same cost to the client, or the same level of benefit at a higher cost; and
(d) whether the replacement product is less suitable for the client.Incorrect
In considering whether a switch is appropriate, the supervisor should take into account the following factors as stated in Notice No: FAA-N16:
(a) whether the client suffers any penalty for terminating the original product;
(b) whether the client will incur any transaction cost without gaining any real benefit from the switch;
(c) whether the replacement product confers a lower level of benefit at a higher cost or same cost to the client, or the same level of benefit at a higher cost; and
(d) whether the replacement product is less suitable for the client. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following describes Outcome One of five fair dealing outcomes of GUIDELINE NO: FAA-G11?
Correct
Outcome One: Customers have confidence that they deal with financial institutions where fair dealing is central to the corporate culture.
Incorrect
Outcome One: Customers have confidence that they deal with financial institutions where fair dealing is central to the corporate culture.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which outcome out of the five fair dealing outcomes, determine if the financial institutions handle customer complaints in an independent, effective and prompt manner?
Correct
Outcome Five: Financial institutions handle customer complaints in an independent, effective and prompt manner.
Incorrect
Outcome Five: Financial institutions handle customer complaints in an independent, effective and prompt manner.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
What does the key changes to the Code on Collective Investment Schemes include?
I. Strengthening Core Investment Requirements for Schemes.
II. Introducing New Guidelines for Specialised Fund Categories.
III. Other Safeguards to Enhance Investor Protection.
IV. Introducing principles on the naming of funds.
Correct
The revised Code on Collective Investment Schemes aims to provide greater clarity and to increase the flexibility for fund managers in managing their funds. The Code also aims to enhance safeguards for retail investors. MAS will only recognise a foreign scheme if it is satisfied that the scheme is subject to investment guidelines which are substantially similar to those as set out in the revised Code. The key changes to the Code include:
(a) Strengthening Core Investment Requirements for Schemes
(b) Introducing New Guidelines for Specialised Fund Categories.
(c) Other Safeguards to Enhance Investor Protection.
(d) Introducing principles on the naming of funds.Incorrect
The revised Code on Collective Investment Schemes aims to provide greater clarity and to increase the flexibility for fund managers in managing their funds. The Code also aims to enhance safeguards for retail investors. MAS will only recognise a foreign scheme if it is satisfied that the scheme is subject to investment guidelines which are substantially similar to those as set out in the revised Code. The key changes to the Code include:
(a) Strengthening Core Investment Requirements for Schemes
(b) Introducing New Guidelines for Specialised Fund Categories.
(c) Other Safeguards to Enhance Investor Protection.
(d) Introducing principles on the naming of funds. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
As per the revised CIS code , the global exposure of a scheme to financial derivatives or embedded financial derivatives should not exceed:
Correct
The global exposure of a scheme to financial derivatives or embedded financial derivatives should not exceed 100% of the scheme’s NAV (Net Asset Value) at all times. MAS has clarified that, for the purpose of calculating global exposure to financial derivatives, setting arrangements may be taken into account to reduce global exposure.
Incorrect
The global exposure of a scheme to financial derivatives or embedded financial derivatives should not exceed 100% of the scheme’s NAV (Net Asset Value) at all times. MAS has clarified that, for the purpose of calculating global exposure to financial derivatives, setting arrangements may be taken into account to reduce global exposure.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following are the significant changes being made to a scheme that the manager should inform the MAS and existing participants?
I. A change in the investment objective or focus of the scheme.
II. An increase in the remuneration payable to the manager or trustee.
III. An increase in any other fees or charges payable by the scheme that are substantial.
IV. An amendment to the trust deed or prospectus to allow a new form of remuneration or expense payable by the scheme.
Correct
The manager should inform the MAS and existing participants of any significant change to be made to a scheme not later than one month before the change is to take effect. Significant changes include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) a change in the investment objective or focus of the scheme.
(b) an increase in the remuneration payable to the manager or trustee.
(c) an increase in any other fees or charges payable by the scheme that are substantial.
(d) an amendment to the trust deed or prospectus to allow a new form of remuneration or expense payable by the scheme.Incorrect
The manager should inform the MAS and existing participants of any significant change to be made to a scheme not later than one month before the change is to take effect. Significant changes include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) a change in the investment objective or focus of the scheme.
(b) an increase in the remuneration payable to the manager or trustee.
(c) an increase in any other fees or charges payable by the scheme that are substantial.
(d) an amendment to the trust deed or prospectus to allow a new form of remuneration or expense payable by the scheme. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
What expense can be done from the scheme?
Correct
No payment should be made from the scheme if it is unfair to, or materially prejudices the interests of, any participant or rospective participant. The manager should not pay or cause to be paid any fees from the scheme that has not been provided for in the trust deed. The manager should not pay or cause to be paid any marketing or promotion expenses from the scheme. Such expenses include those for advertisements in the media, mailers, fact sheets, but exclude those for the preparation, printing, lodgement and distribution of prospectuses, profile statements or product highlights sheets.
Incorrect
No payment should be made from the scheme if it is unfair to, or materially prejudices the interests of, any participant or rospective participant. The manager should not pay or cause to be paid any fees from the scheme that has not been provided for in the trust deed. The manager should not pay or cause to be paid any marketing or promotion expenses from the scheme. Such expenses include those for advertisements in the media, mailers, fact sheets, but exclude those for the preparation, printing, lodgement and distribution of prospectuses, profile statements or product highlights sheets.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
What the prospectus should contain disclosures on, when performance fees are payable?
I. The fact that a performance fee is payable and to whom it is payable.
II. The fact, if applicable, that a performance fee can be levied, even if the return of the scheme is negative.
III. The maximum amount or percentage of the scheme’s NAV that the performance fee may represent in an annual accounting period.
IV. Illustrations, such as numerical examples, of how the performance fee is calculated.
Correct
When performance fees are payable, the prospectus should contain disclosures on:
(a) the fact that a performance fee is payable and to whom it is payable;
(b) the fact, if applicable, that a performance fee can be levied, even if the return of the scheme is negative;
(c) the maximum amount or percentage of the scheme’s NAV that the performance fee may represent in an annual accounting period;
(d) illustrations, such as numerical examples, of how the performance fee is calculated;Incorrect
When performance fees are payable, the prospectus should contain disclosures on:
(a) the fact that a performance fee is payable and to whom it is payable;
(b) the fact, if applicable, that a performance fee can be levied, even if the return of the scheme is negative;
(c) the maximum amount or percentage of the scheme’s NAV that the performance fee may represent in an annual accounting period;
(d) illustrations, such as numerical examples, of how the performance fee is calculated; -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
What can make the name of a scheme undesirable or misleading?
Correct
In assessing whether a name is undesirable or misleading, the MAS will consider factors, including whether the name:
(i) is substantially similar to the name of another scheme;
(ii) implies that the scheme has merits which are not, or may not be, justified;
(iii) implies that the manager has particular qualities, which may not be justified;
(iv) is inconsistent with the scheme’s investment objective or approach.Incorrect
In assessing whether a name is undesirable or misleading, the MAS will consider factors, including whether the name:
(i) is substantially similar to the name of another scheme;
(ii) implies that the scheme has merits which are not, or may not be, justified;
(iii) implies that the manager has particular qualities, which may not be justified;
(iv) is inconsistent with the scheme’s investment objective or approach. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
What should be contained by the semi-annual report and annual report, based on a scheme’s financial year?
I. Amount and percentage of the scheme’s NAV invested in other schemes as at the end of the period under review.
II. Amount and percentage of borrowings to the scheme’s NAV at the end of the period under review.
III. Amount of redemptions and subscriptions for the period under review.
IV. Amount of related-party transactions for the period under review.
Correct
The semi-annual report and annual report, based on a scheme’s financial year, should contain the following:
(a) amount and percentage of the scheme’s NAV invested in other schemes as at the end of the period under review;
(b) amount and percentage of borrowings to the scheme’s NAV at the end of the period under review;
(c) amount of redemptions and subscriptions for the period under review;
(d) amount of related-party transactions for the period under review.Incorrect
The semi-annual report and annual report, based on a scheme’s financial year, should contain the following:
(a) amount and percentage of the scheme’s NAV invested in other schemes as at the end of the period under review;
(b) amount and percentage of borrowings to the scheme’s NAV at the end of the period under review;
(c) amount of redemptions and subscriptions for the period under review;
(d) amount of related-party transactions for the period under review. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
When should the manager should compensate affected participants and notify them of the compensation made?
Correct
When a valuation error represents 0.5% or more of the scheme’s NAV per unit after adjustment for the error, the manager should compensate:
(i) affected participants and notify them of the compensation made;and
(ii) the scheme for any losses incurred as a result of the valuation error.Incorrect
When a valuation error represents 0.5% or more of the scheme’s NAV per unit after adjustment for the error, the manager should compensate:
(i) affected participants and notify them of the compensation made;and
(ii) the scheme for any losses incurred as a result of the valuation error. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
What should the permissible investments must consist of as a part of scheme’s underlying investments?
I. Transferable securities.
II. Money market instruments.
III. Eligible deposits.
IV. Units in other schemes.
Correct
A scheme’s underlying investments must consist of permissible investments.
These include:
(a) transferable securities;
(b) money market instruments;
(c) eligible deposits;
(d) units in other schemesIncorrect
A scheme’s underlying investments must consist of permissible investments.
These include:
(a) transferable securities;
(b) money market instruments;
(c) eligible deposits;
(d) units in other schemes -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
The exposure to a counterparty may be construed as being lower if collateral is tendered to the scheme. What requirements should be met by collateral?
I. It is marked-to-market daily.
II. It is not liquid.
III. It is issued by the counterparty or its related corporations.
IV. It is taken into account, on a portfolio basis, for the purpose of the requirements on spread of investments in the Code.
Correct
The exposure to a counterparty may be construed as being lower if collateral is tendered to the scheme. The collateral should meet the
following requirements:
(a) It is marked-to-market daily;
(b) It is liquid;
(c) It is taken into account, on a portfolio basis, for the purpose of the requirements on spread of investments in the Code;
(d) It is not issued by the counterparty or its related corporations;Incorrect
The exposure to a counterparty may be construed as being lower if collateral is tendered to the scheme. The collateral should meet the
following requirements:
(a) It is marked-to-market daily;
(b) It is liquid;
(c) It is taken into account, on a portfolio basis, for the purpose of the requirements on spread of investments in the Code;
(d) It is not issued by the counterparty or its related corporations; -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
What is the minimum initial subscription required for a single hedge fund?
Correct
A single hedge fund should be offered with a minimum initial subscription of S$100,000 per participant. The minimum holding at any one time should be the lesser of S$100,000, or the number of units purchased for S$100,000 at the time of subscription.
Incorrect
A single hedge fund should be offered with a minimum initial subscription of S$100,000 per participant. The minimum holding at any one time should be the lesser of S$100,000, or the number of units purchased for S$100,000 at the time of subscription.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
What are the features of The Guarantee?
I. It should be a first-demand guarantee.
II. It should be legally enforceable in Singapore against the guarantor by the trustee on behalf of the participants.
III. Provision should be made in the agreement for the guarantee, to ensure that the accrued rights of the trustee.
IV. The guarantee should be in respect of not less than 100% of the capital invested by the participants.
Correct
A written agreement should be entered into between the guarantor and the trustee for an unconditional guarantee to be provided by the guarantor. The guarantee should be a first-demand guarantee, and should be legally enforceable in Singapore against the guarantor by the trustee on behalf of the participants. In addition, provision should be made in the agreement for the guarantee, to ensure that the accrued rights of the trustee, on behalf of the participants, are not affected or prejudiced by the termination of such guarantee. Where the agreement is governed by foreign law, the trustee should ensure and be satisfied that the agreement is legally enforceable in Singapore against the guarantor by the trustee on behalf of the participants.
Incorrect
A written agreement should be entered into between the guarantor and the trustee for an unconditional guarantee to be provided by the guarantor. The guarantee should be a first-demand guarantee, and should be legally enforceable in Singapore against the guarantor by the trustee on behalf of the participants. In addition, provision should be made in the agreement for the guarantee, to ensure that the accrued rights of the trustee, on behalf of the participants, are not affected or prejudiced by the termination of such guarantee. Where the agreement is governed by foreign law, the trustee should ensure and be satisfied that the agreement is legally enforceable in Singapore against the guarantor by the trustee on behalf of the participants.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following classes of employees are exempted from making mandatory CPF contributions by employers?
I. Foreigners on Employment Pass, S Pass, Miscellaneous Work Pass or Work Permit.
II. Persons registered as partners.
III. Sole proprietors or self-employed.
IV. Employees working overseas.
Correct
Employers are exempted from making mandatory CPF contributions for the following classes of employees:
(a) Foreigners on Employment Pass, S Pass, Miscellaneous Work Pass or Work Permit;
(b) Persons registered as partners, sole proprietors or self-employed;and
(c) Employees working overseas.Incorrect
Employers are exempted from making mandatory CPF contributions for the following classes of employees:
(a) Foreigners on Employment Pass, S Pass, Miscellaneous Work Pass or Work Permit;
(b) Persons registered as partners, sole proprietors or self-employed;and
(c) Employees working overseas. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Where cannot savings in the Ordinary Account be used?
Correct
Savings in the Ordinary Account can be used to buy a residential property, pay for certain insurance premiums, invest in certain financial instruments, and provide for education for the CPF member or his children. Savings in the Special Account are primarily reserved for old age and investments that are subject to stringent restrictions.
Incorrect
Savings in the Ordinary Account can be used to buy a residential property, pay for certain insurance premiums, invest in certain financial instruments, and provide for education for the CPF member or his children. Savings in the Special Account are primarily reserved for old age and investments that are subject to stringent restrictions.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
When will the CPF member will be placed on CPF LIFE?
I. If he is a Singapore citizen.
II. If he is a permanent rResident born in 1958 or after.
III. If he has S$40,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 65 years.
IV. If he has S$40,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 55 years.
Correct
The CPF member will be placed on CPF LIFE if he is a Singapore Citizen or Permanent Resident born in 1958 or after, and have at least:
1. S$40,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 55 years; or
2. S$60,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 65 years.Incorrect
The CPF member will be placed on CPF LIFE if he is a Singapore Citizen or Permanent Resident born in 1958 or after, and have at least:
1. S$40,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 55 years; or
2. S$60,000 in his Retirement Account upon reaching the age of 65 years. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
What should be notified to CPF Board if a CPF member has used his CPF savings for the purchase of a flat?
I. Full redemption of the housing loan.
II. Refinancing or re-mortgaging of the flat.
III. Increase in loan quantum approved by the financier.
IV. Any change in loan term.
Correct
Notification Of Changes To Loan Details
A CPF member who has used his CPF savings for the purchase of a flat, as well as his financier (if any), are required to notify the CPF Board of the following:
i) Full redemption of the housing loan;
ii) Refinancing or re-mortgaging of the flat;
iii) Increase in loan quantum approved by the financier;and
iv) Any change in loan term.Incorrect
Notification Of Changes To Loan Details
A CPF member who has used his CPF savings for the purchase of a flat, as well as his financier (if any), are required to notify the CPF Board of the following:
i) Full redemption of the housing loan;
ii) Refinancing or re-mortgaging of the flat;
iii) Increase in loan quantum approved by the financier;and
iv) Any change in loan term. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which is not an eligibility criteria of the LBS?
Correct
The eligibility criteria of the LBS are as follows:
(a) All owners should be at CPF Payout Eligibility Age (currently set at age 64) or older;
(b) At least one owner must be a Singapore Citizen;
(c) Gross monthly household income of S$12,000 or less;
(d) 4-room or smaller HDB flatIncorrect
The eligibility criteria of the LBS are as follows:
(a) All owners should be at CPF Payout Eligibility Age (currently set at age 64) or older;
(b) At least one owner must be a Singapore Citizen;
(c) Gross monthly household income of S$12,000 or less;
(d) 4-room or smaller HDB flat -
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
What is the age criteria for any CPF member to be a part of CPFIS?
Correct
Any CPF member who meets the following requirements is allowed to participate in the CPFIS:
(i) He is at least 18 years old;
(ii) He is not an undischarged bankrupt.Incorrect
Any CPF member who meets the following requirements is allowed to participate in the CPFIS:
(i) He is at least 18 years old;
(ii) He is not an undischarged bankrupt. -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
What are the features of Dependants’ Protection Scheme?
I. It provides insured CPF members and their families with some money to get through the first few years.
II. The DPS is administered by two insurers, Great Eastern Life and NTUC Income.
III. It is automatically extended to CPF members who are Singapore Citizens or Permanent Residents, between the ages of 21 and 60 years.
IV. The premium for 12 months varies according to the age of the CPF member.
Correct
The DPS is an affordable term insurance scheme that provides insured CPF members and their families with some money to get through the first few years, should the insured CPF members die or become permanently incapacitated. Currently, the DPS is administered by two insurers, Great Eastern Life and NTUC Income. This scheme is automatically extended to CPF members who are Singapore Citizens or permanent Residents, between the ages of 21 and 60 years, when they make their first CPF contributions.
Incorrect
The DPS is an affordable term insurance scheme that provides insured CPF members and their families with some money to get through the first few years, should the insured CPF members die or become permanently incapacitated. Currently, the DPS is administered by two insurers, Great Eastern Life and NTUC Income. This scheme is automatically extended to CPF members who are Singapore Citizens or permanent Residents, between the ages of 21 and 60 years, when they make their first CPF contributions.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Under what conditions,the cover will not be automatically renewed every year of a CPF member?
I. He has reached the age of 60 years.
II. He does not have enough CPF savings to pay the premium for a minimum sum assured of S$5,000.
III. He has instructed the CPF Board not to renew his coverage.
IV. He has no contribution paid to his CPF account for a continuous period of two years.
Correct
The cover will be automatically renewed every year with the
premium automatically deducted from the Ordinary Account of the
CPF member, unless one of the following events occurs to him:
(a) He has reached the age of 60 years (current maximum age for coverage), or has become physically / mentally incapacitated, or has died;
(b) He does not have enough CPF savings to pay the premium for a minimum sum assured of S$5,000;
(c) He has instructed the CPF Board not to renew his coverage; or
(d) He has no contribution paid to his CPF account for a continuous period of three years.Incorrect
The cover will be automatically renewed every year with the
premium automatically deducted from the Ordinary Account of the
CPF member, unless one of the following events occurs to him:
(a) He has reached the age of 60 years (current maximum age for coverage), or has become physically / mentally incapacitated, or has died;
(b) He does not have enough CPF savings to pay the premium for a minimum sum assured of S$5,000;
(c) He has instructed the CPF Board not to renew his coverage; or
(d) He has no contribution paid to his CPF account for a continuous period of three years. -
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
What all should be disclosed when applying for Home Protection Scheme?
I. All past and current illnesses.
II. Any surgery that he had previously undergone or would be undergoing.
III. Any physical or mental impairment.
IV. A copy of the medical report on a CPF member’s health condition from his attending physician may be required.
Correct
The CPF member has to fully disclose all information regarding his health condition, including the following:
(a) All past and current illnesses;
(b) Any surgery that he had previously undergone or would be undergoing; and
(c) Any physical or mental impairment.Incorrect
The CPF member has to fully disclose all information regarding his health condition, including the following:
(a) All past and current illnesses;
(b) Any surgery that he had previously undergone or would be undergoing; and
(c) Any physical or mental impairment. -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
How often is the workfare is paid to older low-wage workers?
Correct
Workfare is paid to older low-wage workers twice a year to encourage them to work and to improve their retirement adequacy. Employees receive their Workfare in the form of cash payments and contributions to their CPF accounts. Self-employed persons have their Workfare credited to their Medisave Accounts.
Incorrect
Workfare is paid to older low-wage workers twice a year to encourage them to work and to improve their retirement adequacy. Employees receive their Workfare in the form of cash payments and contributions to their CPF accounts. Self-employed persons have their Workfare credited to their Medisave Accounts.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
What is the eligibility criteria for SRS participation?
I. A participant must be a Singaporean.
II. A participant must be a Singapore Permanent Resident or foreigner.
III. A participant must be at least 21 years old.
IV. A participant must not be an undischarged bankrupt.
Correct
SRS Participation
To be eligible, a participant must be a Singaporean, Singapore Permanent Resident or foreigner, at least 18 years old, of sound mind, capable of managing his own affairs and not being an undischarged bankrupt. To participate in the SRS, a participant must first open an SRS account with any one of the current SRS Operators, namely DBS, OCBC or UOB.Incorrect
SRS Participation
To be eligible, a participant must be a Singaporean, Singapore Permanent Resident or foreigner, at least 18 years old, of sound mind, capable of managing his own affairs and not being an undischarged bankrupt. To participate in the SRS, a participant must first open an SRS account with any one of the current SRS Operators, namely DBS, OCBC or UOB. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Under what conditions shall a penalty not be applied for premature withdrawal of SRS savings?
I. Death
II. Medical grounds
III. Bankruptcy
IV. The full withdrawal of the SRS balance by a foreigner who has maintained his SRS account for at least ten years from the date of
his first contribution.Correct
A 5% penalty for premature withdrawal will also be imposed, unless it is made under exceptional circumstances, such as the following:
(i) Death;
(ii) Medical grounds;
(iii) Bankruptcy; or
(iv) The full withdrawal of the SRS balance by a foreigner who has maintained his SRS account for at least ten years from the date of his first contribution.Incorrect
A 5% penalty for premature withdrawal will also be imposed, unless it is made under exceptional circumstances, such as the following:
(i) Death;
(ii) Medical grounds;
(iii) Bankruptcy; or
(iv) The full withdrawal of the SRS balance by a foreigner who has maintained his SRS account for at least ten years from the date of his first contribution. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
How much penalty will be imposed in case of premature withdrawal of SRS savings?
Correct
A 5% penalty for premature withdrawal will also be imposed, unless it is made under exceptional circumstances, such as the following:
(i) Death;
(ii) Medical grounds;
(iii) Bankruptcy; or
(iv) The full withdrawal of the SRS balance by a foreigner who has maintained his SRS account for at least ten years from the date of his first contribution.Incorrect
A 5% penalty for premature withdrawal will also be imposed, unless it is made under exceptional circumstances, such as the following:
(i) Death;
(ii) Medical grounds;
(iii) Bankruptcy; or
(iv) The full withdrawal of the SRS balance by a foreigner who has maintained his SRS account for at least ten years from the date of his first contribution. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
What conditions apply SRS Investments in case of life insurance products?
I. Only single premium products are allowed.
II. Life cover will be capped at three times the single premium.
III. Plans can allow for a contribution continuation feature / benefit upon disability.
IV. Other types of life insurance e.g. critical illness, health and longterm care are excluded.
Correct
As for life insurance products, the following conditions shall apply:
(i) Only single premium products are allowed (including recurrent single premium products, encompassing both annuity and nonannuity plans);
(ii) Life cover (including total and permanent disability benefits) will be capped at three times the single premium;
(iii) Plans can allow for a contribution continuation feature / benefit upon disability;
(iv) Other types of life insurance e.g. critical illness, health and longterm care are excluded;Incorrect
As for life insurance products, the following conditions shall apply:
(i) Only single premium products are allowed (including recurrent single premium products, encompassing both annuity and nonannuity plans);
(ii) Life cover (including total and permanent disability benefits) will be capped at three times the single premium;
(iii) Plans can allow for a contribution continuation feature / benefit upon disability;
(iv) Other types of life insurance e.g. critical illness, health and longterm care are excluded;