Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Premium Practice Questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
In a scenario where an investor holds an American-style call option on GlobalTech Inc. shares, and the underlying share price has surged significantly above the strike price well before the expiration date, which statement accurately describes the investor’s entitlement?
Correct
An American-style call option grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to purchase the underlying asset at the specified strike price at any time from the purchase date up to and including the expiration date. This contrasts with a European-style option, which can only be exercised on the expiration date. The scenario describes an American-style call option, meaning the investor has the flexibility to exercise their right to buy the shares at the strike price whenever it is advantageous, including well before expiry. Options that grant the right to sell are put options, and obligations are held by the option sellers, not the buyers.
Incorrect
An American-style call option grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to purchase the underlying asset at the specified strike price at any time from the purchase date up to and including the expiration date. This contrasts with a European-style option, which can only be exercised on the expiration date. The scenario describes an American-style call option, meaning the investor has the flexibility to exercise their right to buy the shares at the strike price whenever it is advantageous, including well before expiry. Options that grant the right to sell are put options, and obligations are held by the option sellers, not the buyers.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
When evaluating structured products designed for capital preservation alongside growth potential, a key difference emerges between Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) and Dynamic Proportion Portfolio Insurance (DPPI). While both strategies adjust asset allocation, what is the primary structural distinction concerning their approach to the risky asset multiplier?
Correct
Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) strategies are characterized by a multiplier that is fixed at the outset, calculated as 1 divided by the assumed crash size of the risky asset. This constant multiplier dictates the allocation to the risky asset based on the cushion value. In contrast, Dynamic Proportion Portfolio Insurance (DPPI) strategies, while similar to CPPI, utilize a variable multiplier. This means the amount allocated to the risky asset can fluctuate within a predefined range or band, and the portfolio is rebalanced when the allocation falls outside this band. The other options are incorrect because: the floor value in CPPI is not static but changes over the product’s life, approaching 100% of the principal at maturity; both strategies aim for principal preservation, and neither exclusively guarantees 100% principal return in a way that fundamentally distinguishes them in this manner; and CPPI assumes underlying assets with low volatility, not high volatility, and liquidity is a risk for CPPI products, not a defining characteristic of the underlying assets for either strategy.
Incorrect
Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) strategies are characterized by a multiplier that is fixed at the outset, calculated as 1 divided by the assumed crash size of the risky asset. This constant multiplier dictates the allocation to the risky asset based on the cushion value. In contrast, Dynamic Proportion Portfolio Insurance (DPPI) strategies, while similar to CPPI, utilize a variable multiplier. This means the amount allocated to the risky asset can fluctuate within a predefined range or band, and the portfolio is rebalanced when the allocation falls outside this band. The other options are incorrect because: the floor value in CPPI is not static but changes over the product’s life, approaching 100% of the principal at maturity; both strategies aim for principal preservation, and neither exclusively guarantees 100% principal return in a way that fundamentally distinguishes them in this manner; and CPPI assumes underlying assets with low volatility, not high volatility, and liquidity is a risk for CPPI products, not a defining characteristic of the underlying assets for either strategy.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
When a company with outstanding warrants declares both a normal and a special dividend, the exercise price of these warrants typically undergoes an adjustment to reflect the change in the underlying share value. Consider ‘TechGrowth Inc.’ which has warrants with an original exercise price of $5.00. The last cum-date closing price of TechGrowth Inc.’s shares was $12.00. The company announced a special dividend of $0.50 per share and a normal dividend of $0.20 per share. Based on CMFAS 6A principles for dividend adjustments, what would be the new adjusted exercise price for these warrants?
Correct
The adjustment for dividends aims to compensate warrant holders for the reduction in the underlying share price due to dividend payouts. The formula for the Adjustment Factor is (P – SD – ND) / (P – ND), where P is the last cum-date closing price of the underlying, SD is the Special Dividend per Share, and ND is the Normal Dividend per Share. The new exercise price is then calculated by multiplying the old exercise price by this Adjustment Factor. Given: Old Exercise Price = $5.00 Last cum-date closing price (P) = $12.00 Special Dividend (SD) = $0.50 Normal Dividend (ND) = $0.20 First, calculate the Adjustment Factor: Numerator = P – SD – ND = $12.00 – $0.50 – $0.20 = $11.30 Denominator = P – ND = $12.00 – $0.20 = $11.80 Adjustment Factor = $11.30 / $11.80 ≈ 0.9576271186 Next, calculate the New Exercise Price: New Exercise Price = Old Exercise Price × Adjustment Factor New Exercise Price = $5.00 × 0.9576271186 ≈ $4.788135593 Rounding to two decimal places, the new adjusted exercise price is $4.79.
Incorrect
The adjustment for dividends aims to compensate warrant holders for the reduction in the underlying share price due to dividend payouts. The formula for the Adjustment Factor is (P – SD – ND) / (P – ND), where P is the last cum-date closing price of the underlying, SD is the Special Dividend per Share, and ND is the Normal Dividend per Share. The new exercise price is then calculated by multiplying the old exercise price by this Adjustment Factor. Given: Old Exercise Price = $5.00 Last cum-date closing price (P) = $12.00 Special Dividend (SD) = $0.50 Normal Dividend (ND) = $0.20 First, calculate the Adjustment Factor: Numerator = P – SD – ND = $12.00 – $0.50 – $0.20 = $11.30 Denominator = P – ND = $12.00 – $0.20 = $11.80 Adjustment Factor = $11.30 / $11.80 ≈ 0.9576271186 Next, calculate the New Exercise Price: New Exercise Price = Old Exercise Price × Adjustment Factor New Exercise Price = $5.00 × 0.9576271186 ≈ $4.788135593 Rounding to two decimal places, the new adjusted exercise price is $4.79.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
In a high-stakes environment where a financial analyst, Sarah, anticipates an upcoming corporate announcement will trigger a substantial price movement in a particular stock, but the direction of this movement is highly uncertain. Sarah’s objective is to capitalize on this expected large volatility while managing the initial premium expenditure to be relatively modest. Which options strategy aligns best with Sarah’s market outlook and capital management preference?
Correct
The scenario describes a trader anticipating significant, but uncertain, price volatility and aiming for a relatively lower initial capital outlay. A long strangle involves simultaneously buying a slightly out-of-the-money put and a slightly out-of-the-money call with the same underlying stock and expiration date. This strategy is suitable for profiting from large price movements in either direction, and because the options are out-of-the-money, their premiums are generally lower than at-the-money options, leading to a lower initial debit compared to a long straddle. While a long straddle also profits from significant volatility, it involves buying at-the-money options, which typically have higher premiums, resulting in a greater initial cost and a smaller required price movement to break even. Short straddles and short strangles are strategies used when expecting low volatility, aiming to profit from time decay and the options expiring worthless, and they carry unlimited risk, which contradicts the objective of managing capital outlay for a high-volatility expectation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a trader anticipating significant, but uncertain, price volatility and aiming for a relatively lower initial capital outlay. A long strangle involves simultaneously buying a slightly out-of-the-money put and a slightly out-of-the-money call with the same underlying stock and expiration date. This strategy is suitable for profiting from large price movements in either direction, and because the options are out-of-the-money, their premiums are generally lower than at-the-money options, leading to a lower initial debit compared to a long straddle. While a long straddle also profits from significant volatility, it involves buying at-the-money options, which typically have higher premiums, resulting in a greater initial cost and a smaller required price movement to break even. Short straddles and short strangles are strategies used when expecting low volatility, aiming to profit from time decay and the options expiring worthless, and they carry unlimited risk, which contradicts the objective of managing capital outlay for a high-volatility expectation.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
In a scenario where an investor prioritizes principal protection while seeking exposure to potential upside in an equity index, a financial advisor recommends a structured product utilizing a Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option strategy. Assuming no credit event by the issuing bank, what is the primary mechanism ensuring the investor’s initial principal is returned at maturity?
Correct
The Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option strategy, often referred to as a ‘Zero Plus’ option, is designed to offer capital preservation. This is primarily achieved through the inclusion of a zero-coupon fixed income instrument, such as a zero-coupon note, within the product’s structure. This instrument is purchased at a discount and is structured to mature at the investor’s original principal amount by the product’s maturity date, assuming no credit event by the issuing bank. The remaining portion of the investment is then used to purchase an option (e.g., a call option) on an underlying financial instrument, which provides the potential for upside returns. Therefore, the zero-coupon bond component is the fundamental mechanism for principal protection. Other options describe different types of capital protection or misrepresent the core structure of a Zero Plus option.
Incorrect
The Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option strategy, often referred to as a ‘Zero Plus’ option, is designed to offer capital preservation. This is primarily achieved through the inclusion of a zero-coupon fixed income instrument, such as a zero-coupon note, within the product’s structure. This instrument is purchased at a discount and is structured to mature at the investor’s original principal amount by the product’s maturity date, assuming no credit event by the issuing bank. The remaining portion of the investment is then used to purchase an option (e.g., a call option) on an underlying financial instrument, which provides the potential for upside returns. Therefore, the zero-coupon bond component is the fundamental mechanism for principal protection. Other options describe different types of capital protection or misrepresent the core structure of a Zero Plus option.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
When an investor in Singapore holds a Bear Callable Bull/Bear Contract (CBBC) with a conversion ratio of 1:1, and the underlying asset experiences an upward price movement, how is the CBBC’s value expected to behave?
Correct
Callable Bull/Bear Contracts (CBBCs) are structured products designed to track the performance of an underlying asset. For a Bear CBBC, investors take a bearish (negative) position on the underlying asset. The pricing mechanism of a CBBC is transparent, with its price changes tending to closely follow those of the underlying asset due to a delta close to 1. Specifically, if the underlying asset’s value increases, a Bear CBBC (with a 1:1 conversion ratio) will decrease in value by approximately the same amount. Conversely, a Bull CBBC would increase in value under the same circumstances. The knock-out barrier is a separate feature that can lead to early termination if breached, but the day-to-day price movement is governed by the underlying’s performance relative to the CBBC’s direction.
Incorrect
Callable Bull/Bear Contracts (CBBCs) are structured products designed to track the performance of an underlying asset. For a Bear CBBC, investors take a bearish (negative) position on the underlying asset. The pricing mechanism of a CBBC is transparent, with its price changes tending to closely follow those of the underlying asset due to a delta close to 1. Specifically, if the underlying asset’s value increases, a Bear CBBC (with a 1:1 conversion ratio) will decrease in value by approximately the same amount. Conversely, a Bull CBBC would increase in value under the same circumstances. The knock-out barrier is a separate feature that can lead to early termination if breached, but the day-to-day price movement is governed by the underlying’s performance relative to the CBBC’s direction.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
In a situation where a client has been issued a margin call for an Extended Settlement (ES) contract and has not deposited the necessary additional margins by the close of the market on T+2, what type of trading activity is generally permissible for the Member or Trading Representative to accept from this client?
Correct
When a customer fails to meet a margin call for an Extended Settlement (ES) contract by the close of the market on T+2, the Member or Trading Representative is generally restricted from accepting new trade orders. However, a specific exception exists: orders that would result in the customer’s Required Margins being reduced are still permissible. These are often referred to as ‘risk-reducing trades,’ such as the liquidation of an open position. Accepting orders that increase exposure or new trades without the margin being met would violate regulatory requirements. Diversifying into new contracts without meeting the margin call would also not be permitted unless it specifically reduces the required margin.
Incorrect
When a customer fails to meet a margin call for an Extended Settlement (ES) contract by the close of the market on T+2, the Member or Trading Representative is generally restricted from accepting new trade orders. However, a specific exception exists: orders that would result in the customer’s Required Margins being reduced are still permissible. These are often referred to as ‘risk-reducing trades,’ such as the liquidation of an open position. Accepting orders that increase exposure or new trades without the margin being met would violate regulatory requirements. Diversifying into new contracts without meeting the margin call would also not be permitted unless it specifically reduces the required margin.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
In a scenario where an investor anticipates a sustained decline in a particular stock’s value over a medium-term horizon and seeks to capitalize on this view without incurring direct borrowing costs for the underlying shares or facing immediate buy-in risks, which SGX-ST listed instrument would be most appropriate?
Correct
Extended Settlement (ES) Contracts are designed to allow investors to take short positions, enabling them to profit from an anticipated decline in the underlying stock’s price. A significant advantage of ES contracts for short positions is that they do not incur direct borrowing costs for the underlying shares, which is typically associated with short selling in the ready market. Furthermore, the risk of a buy-in is greatly reduced, only materializing if the contract is held to maturity and there is a failure to deliver the shares. This makes ES contracts a suitable instrument for expressing a bearish view over a medium-term horizon (up to about 35 days). Contra trading, while allowing for intra-day short selling, requires positions to be settled quickly (T+2 or T+3) and is not suitable for holding a short position over several weeks without converting it to a long position or incurring significant cash tie-up. Margin financing is primarily used to leverage long positions by borrowing funds to purchase shares and does not typically facilitate short selling of the underlying shares. Short selling in the ready market, while possible, involves borrowing shares, which incurs borrowing costs, and carries a higher and more immediate risk of a buy-in if the borrowed shares cannot be returned.
Incorrect
Extended Settlement (ES) Contracts are designed to allow investors to take short positions, enabling them to profit from an anticipated decline in the underlying stock’s price. A significant advantage of ES contracts for short positions is that they do not incur direct borrowing costs for the underlying shares, which is typically associated with short selling in the ready market. Furthermore, the risk of a buy-in is greatly reduced, only materializing if the contract is held to maturity and there is a failure to deliver the shares. This makes ES contracts a suitable instrument for expressing a bearish view over a medium-term horizon (up to about 35 days). Contra trading, while allowing for intra-day short selling, requires positions to be settled quickly (T+2 or T+3) and is not suitable for holding a short position over several weeks without converting it to a long position or incurring significant cash tie-up. Margin financing is primarily used to leverage long positions by borrowing funds to purchase shares and does not typically facilitate short selling of the underlying shares. Short selling in the ready market, while possible, involves borrowing shares, which incurs borrowing costs, and carries a higher and more immediate risk of a buy-in if the borrowed shares cannot be returned.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
In a scenario where a market participant is assessing the financial implications of minor price movements for derivatives, they observe a Eurodollar futures contract that is three months from its expiry. If this contract experiences a price change equivalent to its minimum allowable fluctuation, what would be the monetary value of this change for a single contract?
Correct
The question describes a Eurodollar futures contract that is three months from its expiry, which means it is not the spot month contract. According to the Eurodollar Futures Contracts Specifications, the minimum price fluctuation for ‘other contract months’ (i.e., non-spot months) is 0.0050 point. The specifications explicitly state that this 0.0050 point fluctuation corresponds to a monetary value of USD 12.50. Therefore, a price change equivalent to the minimum allowable fluctuation for this contract would result in a USD 12.50 change for a single contract. The option of USD 6.25 represents the minimum price fluctuation for the spot month, which is not applicable in this scenario.
Incorrect
The question describes a Eurodollar futures contract that is three months from its expiry, which means it is not the spot month contract. According to the Eurodollar Futures Contracts Specifications, the minimum price fluctuation for ‘other contract months’ (i.e., non-spot months) is 0.0050 point. The specifications explicitly state that this 0.0050 point fluctuation corresponds to a monetary value of USD 12.50. Therefore, a price change equivalent to the minimum allowable fluctuation for this contract would result in a USD 12.50 change for a single contract. The option of USD 6.25 represents the minimum price fluctuation for the spot month, which is not applicable in this scenario.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
In a high-stakes environment where market sentiment shifts dramatically, a particular futures contract experiences a rapid price decline, hitting its daily price limit during the trading session. What is a potential action the exchange might take concerning this limit for the subsequent trading period, as per standard futures market practices?
Correct
Futures markets implement daily price limits to manage extreme price volatility. When a futures contract’s price reaches its daily limit, especially at the limit bid or offer, the exchange has the discretion to widen this limit for the subsequent trading session. This action is taken to facilitate transactions and allow the contract’s price to adjust more freely to the underlying market environment and supply-demand dynamics, rather than being artificially constrained by the previous day’s limit. This mechanism aims to ensure that futures prices remain reflective of current market conditions and prevent prolonged market dislocations. Other options, such as automatic liquidation of positions, permanent trading halts, or permanent removal of limits, do not accurately reflect the standard operational procedures for daily price limits in futures markets.
Incorrect
Futures markets implement daily price limits to manage extreme price volatility. When a futures contract’s price reaches its daily limit, especially at the limit bid or offer, the exchange has the discretion to widen this limit for the subsequent trading session. This action is taken to facilitate transactions and allow the contract’s price to adjust more freely to the underlying market environment and supply-demand dynamics, rather than being artificially constrained by the previous day’s limit. This mechanism aims to ensure that futures prices remain reflective of current market conditions and prevent prolonged market dislocations. Other options, such as automatic liquidation of positions, permanent trading halts, or permanent removal of limits, do not accurately reflect the standard operational procedures for daily price limits in futures markets.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
In a scenario where immediate response requirements affect an investor’s Extended Settlement (ES) contract position, an investor’s Customer Asset Value (CAV) has fallen below the Required Margins following significant adverse market movements. The Member promptly issues a margin call. What is the primary obligation of the investor and the immediate consequence if this obligation is not met within the specified period?
Correct
When an investor’s Customer Asset Value (CAV) falls below the Required Margins, a margin call is triggered. The investor’s primary obligation is to deposit additional funds or collateral to bring their CAV up to at least the sum of their Initial Margins and Additional Margins. This must be done within two market days. If the investor fails to meet this margin call within the stipulated timeframe, a direct consequence is that they will be prohibited from placing new trading orders, with the sole exception of trades specifically designed to reduce their existing risk exposure. The other options present incorrect timeframes, incorrect target levels for the Customer Asset Value, or consequences that are not the immediate and direct outcome as per the regulations.
Incorrect
When an investor’s Customer Asset Value (CAV) falls below the Required Margins, a margin call is triggered. The investor’s primary obligation is to deposit additional funds or collateral to bring their CAV up to at least the sum of their Initial Margins and Additional Margins. This must be done within two market days. If the investor fails to meet this margin call within the stipulated timeframe, a direct consequence is that they will be prohibited from placing new trading orders, with the sole exception of trades specifically designed to reduce their existing risk exposure. The other options present incorrect timeframes, incorrect target levels for the Customer Asset Value, or consequences that are not the immediate and direct outcome as per the regulations.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
When evaluating multiple solutions for a complex investment objective, an investor considers an Equity-Linked Structured Note (ELSN) designed with a zero-coupon bond and a call option on an equity index. The ELSN aims for capital preservation and potential upside participation. If the discount sum generated by the zero-coupon bond component is less than the premium required to purchase a single call option contract, what is the most likely outcome for the investor’s participation in the underlying equity index’s performance?
Correct
An Equity-Linked Structured Note (ELSN) is designed with two main components: a zero-coupon bond for capital preservation and a call option for potential upside returns. The ‘discount sum’ is derived from the difference between the zero-coupon bond’s face value and its present value, and this sum is specifically allocated to fund the purchase of the equity call option. If the discount sum generated by the bond component is less than the premium required to purchase the full number of call option contracts needed for 100% participation, the product issuer will acquire fewer option contracts. This directly results in the investor having a participation rate that is less than 100% in the underlying equity index’s performance. The capital preservation objective, primarily met by the zero-coupon bond, is generally separate from the funding of the option component, and a shortfall in the discount sum adjusts the upside potential rather than compromising the principal preservation itself (barring counterparty risk).
Incorrect
An Equity-Linked Structured Note (ELSN) is designed with two main components: a zero-coupon bond for capital preservation and a call option for potential upside returns. The ‘discount sum’ is derived from the difference between the zero-coupon bond’s face value and its present value, and this sum is specifically allocated to fund the purchase of the equity call option. If the discount sum generated by the bond component is less than the premium required to purchase the full number of call option contracts needed for 100% participation, the product issuer will acquire fewer option contracts. This directly results in the investor having a participation rate that is less than 100% in the underlying equity index’s performance. The capital preservation objective, primarily met by the zero-coupon bond, is generally separate from the funding of the option component, and a shortfall in the discount sum adjusts the upside potential rather than compromising the principal preservation itself (barring counterparty risk).
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
When an investor acquires a call option by paying a premium of $4, and another market participant simultaneously issues an identical call option, what represents the maximum financial risk for the option buyer and the option writer, respectively, should the market move against their positions?
Correct
For a call option buyer, the maximum loss is limited to the premium paid for the option. This is because if the underlying asset’s price falls below the exercise price, the buyer will simply choose not to exercise the option, allowing it to expire worthless. Their only financial outlay is the initial premium. Conversely, for a call option writer (seller), the maximum loss is theoretically unlimited. If the underlying asset’s price rises significantly above the exercise price, the writer is obligated to sell the asset at the lower exercise price, potentially incurring substantial losses as they may need to acquire the asset at a much higher market price to fulfill their obligation.
Incorrect
For a call option buyer, the maximum loss is limited to the premium paid for the option. This is because if the underlying asset’s price falls below the exercise price, the buyer will simply choose not to exercise the option, allowing it to expire worthless. Their only financial outlay is the initial premium. Conversely, for a call option writer (seller), the maximum loss is theoretically unlimited. If the underlying asset’s price rises significantly above the exercise price, the writer is obligated to sell the asset at the lower exercise price, potentially incurring substantial losses as they may need to acquire the asset at a much higher market price to fulfill their obligation.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
When evaluating multiple solutions for a complex investment objective, a financial advisor considers a structured product strategy known for its capital preservation feature. In the context of a Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option Strategy, what is the primary mechanism by which an investor’s initial principal is typically protected at maturity?
Correct
The Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option Strategy, often referred to as a ‘capital preservation strategy,’ primarily achieves principal protection through its zero-coupon bond component. This bond is designed to mature at the initial principal amount. However, this protection is contingent on the creditworthiness of the issuing institution, meaning that a credit event (e.g., default) by the issuer could jeopardize the return of principal. The upside potential of the structured product comes from the embedded call option, which links performance to an underlying financial instrument above a specified strike price. Therefore, the core mechanism for principal protection relies on the zero-coupon bond and the issuer’s financial stability. Other options describe incorrect features or mechanisms not central to the principal protection aspect of this specific strategy.
Incorrect
The Zero Coupon Fixed Income Plus Option Strategy, often referred to as a ‘capital preservation strategy,’ primarily achieves principal protection through its zero-coupon bond component. This bond is designed to mature at the initial principal amount. However, this protection is contingent on the creditworthiness of the issuing institution, meaning that a credit event (e.g., default) by the issuer could jeopardize the return of principal. The upside potential of the structured product comes from the embedded call option, which links performance to an underlying financial instrument above a specified strike price. Therefore, the core mechanism for principal protection relies on the zero-coupon bond and the issuer’s financial stability. Other options describe incorrect features or mechanisms not central to the principal protection aspect of this specific strategy.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
In a scenario where a market participant initiates a futures strategy by simultaneously buying a November natural gas futures contract and selling a January crude oil futures contract, with both transactions occurring on the same derivatives exchange, how would this specific futures spread be most accurately characterized?
Correct
The scenario describes a futures strategy involving two distinct commodities: natural gas and crude oil. This immediately classifies it as an ‘Inter-commodity’ spread, as the underlying assets are different. Both contracts are executed on the ‘same derivatives exchange,’ which means the positions are traded within the same market, thus making it an ‘Intra-market’ spread. Finally, the contracts have different delivery months, November for natural gas and January for crude oil, which defines it as an ‘Inter-delivery’ spread. Therefore, the most accurate characterization encompasses all three aspects: Inter-commodity, Intra-market, and Inter-delivery.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a futures strategy involving two distinct commodities: natural gas and crude oil. This immediately classifies it as an ‘Inter-commodity’ spread, as the underlying assets are different. Both contracts are executed on the ‘same derivatives exchange,’ which means the positions are traded within the same market, thus making it an ‘Intra-market’ spread. Finally, the contracts have different delivery months, November for natural gas and January for crude oil, which defines it as an ‘Inter-delivery’ spread. Therefore, the most accurate characterization encompasses all three aspects: Inter-commodity, Intra-market, and Inter-delivery.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
When developing a solution that must address opposing needs, such as capital preservation alongside market-linked growth potential, an investment manager considers various fund structures. If a client prioritizes a predefined, rule-based strategy designed to return their initial capital at maturity, even in declining markets, while still participating in market performance, which type of fund structure is generally best suited to achieve this specific combination of objectives?
Correct
The question describes a client’s objective for an investment that combines capital preservation at maturity with market-linked growth potential, managed through a predefined, rule-based strategy. Structured funds are specifically designed through financial engineering to achieve such specific risk/return profiles. As per the syllabus, structured funds can offer a degree of capital preservation, allowing investors to potentially earn market-linked returns while aiming to return their initial investment at maturity even if financial markets decline. This is often achieved through techniques derived from portfolio insurance, such as Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI). Traditional actively managed balanced funds rely on the fund manager’s active decisions and do not inherently guarantee capital preservation at maturity. Passively managed exchange-traded funds (ETFs) aim to replicate an index’s performance but do not typically include capital preservation features. Short-term fixed income funds prioritize capital stability and liquidity but offer very limited market-linked growth potential.
Incorrect
The question describes a client’s objective for an investment that combines capital preservation at maturity with market-linked growth potential, managed through a predefined, rule-based strategy. Structured funds are specifically designed through financial engineering to achieve such specific risk/return profiles. As per the syllabus, structured funds can offer a degree of capital preservation, allowing investors to potentially earn market-linked returns while aiming to return their initial investment at maturity even if financial markets decline. This is often achieved through techniques derived from portfolio insurance, such as Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI). Traditional actively managed balanced funds rely on the fund manager’s active decisions and do not inherently guarantee capital preservation at maturity. Passively managed exchange-traded funds (ETFs) aim to replicate an index’s performance but do not typically include capital preservation features. Short-term fixed income funds prioritize capital stability and liquidity but offer very limited market-linked growth potential.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a comprehensive review of a structured product portfolio, an investor examines a Yield Enhanced Security (Discount Certificate) on Company Alpha. The warrant has an exercise price of $5.30 and is cash-settled. At its expiration, the underlying share’s closing price is observed to be $5.60. Considering the nature of this security, what would be the cash settlement amount received by the investor for each warrant?
Correct
Yield Enhanced Securities, also known as Discount Certificates, are structured products designed to offer an attractive yield. Their payoff at maturity is specific: if the underlying asset’s closing price on the expiration or valuation date is at or above the exercise price (also known as the cap strike), the holder receives a cash settlement equal to the exercise price. If the closing price is below the exercise price, the holder receives a cash settlement equal to the value of the underlying on that date. In this scenario, the underlying share’s closing price of $5.60 is above the exercise price of $5.30. Therefore, the investor would receive the exercise price as the cash settlement.
Incorrect
Yield Enhanced Securities, also known as Discount Certificates, are structured products designed to offer an attractive yield. Their payoff at maturity is specific: if the underlying asset’s closing price on the expiration or valuation date is at or above the exercise price (also known as the cap strike), the holder receives a cash settlement equal to the exercise price. If the closing price is below the exercise price, the holder receives a cash settlement equal to the value of the underlying on that date. In this scenario, the underlying share’s closing price of $5.60 is above the exercise price of $5.30. Therefore, the investor would receive the exercise price as the cash settlement.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
In an environment where regulatory standards demand clear and concise disclosure for new investment products, a financial institution is preparing to launch a structured product for retail investors. While developing the Product Highlights Sheet (PHS) as required by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS), what is the fundamental objective the institution must prioritize for this document?
Correct
The Product Highlights Sheet (PHS), as mandated by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS), is a crucial disclosure document designed primarily for retail investors. Its fundamental objective is to provide a concise, clear, and balanced summary of a financial product’s key features, associated risks, and all relevant fees and charges. This enables investors to quickly understand the essential aspects of the product without having to sift through a lengthy prospectus, thereby facilitating informed decision-making. It is not intended to be a comprehensive legal document, nor is it a marketing tool focused solely on benefits. Furthermore, it supplements, rather than replaces, the full prospectus or offer document.
Incorrect
The Product Highlights Sheet (PHS), as mandated by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS), is a crucial disclosure document designed primarily for retail investors. Its fundamental objective is to provide a concise, clear, and balanced summary of a financial product’s key features, associated risks, and all relevant fees and charges. This enables investors to quickly understand the essential aspects of the product without having to sift through a lengthy prospectus, thereby facilitating informed decision-making. It is not intended to be a comprehensive legal document, nor is it a marketing tool focused solely on benefits. Furthermore, it supplements, rather than replaces, the full prospectus or offer document.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
While analyzing the factors influencing the valuation of a structured warrant, which of the following is considered a market-driven consensus estimate reflecting the underlying price volatility over the warrant’s life?
Correct
Implied volatility is defined as the market’s consensus estimate or view regarding the warrant’s underlying price volatility for the duration of its life. It captures prevailing sentiment and technical factors, such as market demand and supply conditions, in addition to theoretical price factors. Effective gearing is a measure of a warrant’s sensitivity to the underlying asset’s price movement, intrinsic value is the immediate profit if the warrant were exercised, and conversion price is the breakeven price an investor pays to convert warrants into the underlying security. None of these other options represent the market’s estimate of future price volatility.
Incorrect
Implied volatility is defined as the market’s consensus estimate or view regarding the warrant’s underlying price volatility for the duration of its life. It captures prevailing sentiment and technical factors, such as market demand and supply conditions, in addition to theoretical price factors. Effective gearing is a measure of a warrant’s sensitivity to the underlying asset’s price movement, intrinsic value is the immediate profit if the warrant were exercised, and conversion price is the breakeven price an investor pays to convert warrants into the underlying security. None of these other options represent the market’s estimate of future price volatility.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
During a period of market volatility, an investor decides to purchase a put option on XYZ Corp. stock. The option has an exercise price of $70 and the investor pays a premium of $5 per share. If, at expiration, the underlying XYZ Corp. stock is trading at $62 per share, what is the investor’s net profit or loss from this single put option?
Correct
For a put option buyer, the option is exercised if the underlying asset price at expiration (ST) is below the exercise price (X). In this scenario, the exercise price is $70 and the underlying stock price at expiration is $62. Since $62 is less than $70, the option is in-the-money and will be exercised. The intrinsic value, which represents the payoff to the option holder at expiration, is calculated as X – ST = $70 – $62 = $8. This is the amount the investor receives from exercising the option. However, the investor initially paid a premium of $5 for the option. To determine the net profit or loss, the premium paid must be subtracted from the payoff. Therefore, the net profit is $8 (payoff) – $5 (premium) = $3. The maximum loss for a put option buyer is limited to the premium paid, which would only occur if the option expires out-of-the-money (i.e., if the underlying price was at or above the exercise price).
Incorrect
For a put option buyer, the option is exercised if the underlying asset price at expiration (ST) is below the exercise price (X). In this scenario, the exercise price is $70 and the underlying stock price at expiration is $62. Since $62 is less than $70, the option is in-the-money and will be exercised. The intrinsic value, which represents the payoff to the option holder at expiration, is calculated as X – ST = $70 – $62 = $8. This is the amount the investor receives from exercising the option. However, the investor initially paid a premium of $5 for the option. To determine the net profit or loss, the premium paid must be subtracted from the payoff. Therefore, the net profit is $8 (payoff) – $5 (premium) = $3. The maximum loss for a put option buyer is limited to the premium paid, which would only occur if the option expires out-of-the-money (i.e., if the underlying price was at or above the exercise price).
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
When considering a Range Accrual Note (RAN) where the coupon payout is contingent on a reference index remaining within a predefined range, an investor observes that the reference index has consistently closed outside this specified range for a substantial portion of the observation period. The note’s terms stipulate a specific coupon rate for days the index is within range and a zero coupon for days it is outside, with full principal preservation at maturity. In this situation, what is the most likely outcome for the investor regarding their interest earnings for that period?
Correct
A Range Accrual Note (RAN) is a structured product where the interest payout is directly linked to whether a specified reference index remains within a predefined range during the observation period. If the reference index closes outside this agreed range, the investor typically receives less or no interest for those specific days, as per the note’s terms. However, a key characteristic of many RANs, especially those described as ‘yield enhancement structures’ with principal preservation, is that the initial principal sum is returned in full at maturity, subject to the issuer’s credit risk. Therefore, if the index consistently closes outside the range, the interest earnings will be significantly impacted, potentially resulting in zero interest for the affected period, but the principal amount remains protected. The other options are incorrect because RANs generally do not involve principal loss (unless explicitly stated as a feature of a different type of structured note), nor do they typically have automatic coupon recalibration or early redemption clauses triggered solely by the reference index moving out of range.
Incorrect
A Range Accrual Note (RAN) is a structured product where the interest payout is directly linked to whether a specified reference index remains within a predefined range during the observation period. If the reference index closes outside this agreed range, the investor typically receives less or no interest for those specific days, as per the note’s terms. However, a key characteristic of many RANs, especially those described as ‘yield enhancement structures’ with principal preservation, is that the initial principal sum is returned in full at maturity, subject to the issuer’s credit risk. Therefore, if the index consistently closes outside the range, the interest earnings will be significantly impacted, potentially resulting in zero interest for the affected period, but the principal amount remains protected. The other options are incorrect because RANs generally do not involve principal loss (unless explicitly stated as a feature of a different type of structured note), nor do they typically have automatic coupon recalibration or early redemption clauses triggered solely by the reference index moving out of range.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
During a comprehensive review of a structured product’s safeguards, an investor is informed about various independent oversight functions. Among these, which specific mechanism is primarily responsible for holding the assets and underlying financial instruments purchased within the structured product, thereby providing an additional layer of investor assurance?
Correct
The question tests understanding of the independent oversight functions for structured products, specifically focusing on the role of an independent trustee. According to the CMFAS 6A syllabus, an independent trustee is appointed to hold the assets and underlying financial instruments of a structured product. This arrangement provides investors with assurance that the product’s assets are managed with due care and held separately from the issuer’s own assets. Financial auditors are engaged to ascertain that financial statements are true and fair and to ensure fair valuation, but they do not hold the assets. Exchange regulatory bodies provide oversight for exchange-traded structured products by ensuring compliance with rules and disclosure requirements, but they do not directly hold the assets of individual products. The issuer’s internal risk management committee is an internal function and, while important, does not fulfill the role of independent asset holding for investor assurance.
Incorrect
The question tests understanding of the independent oversight functions for structured products, specifically focusing on the role of an independent trustee. According to the CMFAS 6A syllabus, an independent trustee is appointed to hold the assets and underlying financial instruments of a structured product. This arrangement provides investors with assurance that the product’s assets are managed with due care and held separately from the issuer’s own assets. Financial auditors are engaged to ascertain that financial statements are true and fair and to ensure fair valuation, but they do not hold the assets. Exchange regulatory bodies provide oversight for exchange-traded structured products by ensuring compliance with rules and disclosure requirements, but they do not directly hold the assets of individual products. The issuer’s internal risk management committee is an internal function and, while important, does not fulfill the role of independent asset holding for investor assurance.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
While facing unprecedented challenges in a dynamic market, consider an Extended Settlement (ES) contract tied to ‘Global Innovations Inc.’ shares. Global Innovations Inc. announces a 1-for-2 share split, where each existing share will be divided into two. Assuming the Book Closure Date for this event is prior to the ES contract’s settlement day, what is the primary method SGX would employ to adjust the ES contract to account for this corporate action?
Correct
For Extended Settlement (ES) contracts, SGX makes full corporate action adjustments when the Book Closure Date of the corporate event on the underlying security is before the settlement day. When a corporate event, such as a share split, results in shareholders obtaining an increase or decrease in the number of shares, the primary method of adjustment is to reflect this change by a similar increase or decrease in the contract multiplier for the respective ES contracts. While a share split also impacts the share price, the direct adjustment for the change in the number of shares is via the contract multiplier. Adjusting the settlement price is typically for events that directly alter the share value/price in other ways, or as a secondary adjustment. Bringing forward the Last Trading Day is a measure SGX might take for corporate actions not falling into the main categories or as an additional step, but it is not the primary adjustment for a share split. Mandatory cash-settlement or suspension of contracts are not the standard adjustment procedures for such events; the objective is to adjust the contract to maintain its value as far as practicable.
Incorrect
For Extended Settlement (ES) contracts, SGX makes full corporate action adjustments when the Book Closure Date of the corporate event on the underlying security is before the settlement day. When a corporate event, such as a share split, results in shareholders obtaining an increase or decrease in the number of shares, the primary method of adjustment is to reflect this change by a similar increase or decrease in the contract multiplier for the respective ES contracts. While a share split also impacts the share price, the direct adjustment for the change in the number of shares is via the contract multiplier. Adjusting the settlement price is typically for events that directly alter the share value/price in other ways, or as a secondary adjustment. Bringing forward the Last Trading Day is a measure SGX might take for corporate actions not falling into the main categories or as an additional step, but it is not the primary adjustment for a share split. Mandatory cash-settlement or suspension of contracts are not the standard adjustment procedures for such events; the objective is to adjust the contract to maintain its value as far as practicable.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
When an investor seeks a structured product designed to provide a minimum return of principal at maturity, which of the following strategies is commonly employed to achieve this objective?
Correct
Structured products designed to offer a minimum return of principal at maturity commonly employ specific strategies to achieve this capital preservation. One such strategy involves combining a zero-coupon bond with a long-call option. The zero-coupon bond ensures the return of the principal amount at maturity, while the long-call option provides exposure to potential upside performance of the underlying asset. Another strategy for minimum principal return is the Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) strategy, which notably does not involve options for its principal protection mechanism. Conversely, structured products that do not offer a minimum return of principal typically utilize short options strategies, which expose the investor to potential losses beyond the initial investment. Therefore, a strategy involving a zero-coupon bond and a long-call option is a standard approach for principal-protected structured products.
Incorrect
Structured products designed to offer a minimum return of principal at maturity commonly employ specific strategies to achieve this capital preservation. One such strategy involves combining a zero-coupon bond with a long-call option. The zero-coupon bond ensures the return of the principal amount at maturity, while the long-call option provides exposure to potential upside performance of the underlying asset. Another strategy for minimum principal return is the Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) strategy, which notably does not involve options for its principal protection mechanism. Conversely, structured products that do not offer a minimum return of principal typically utilize short options strategies, which expose the investor to potential losses beyond the initial investment. Therefore, a strategy involving a zero-coupon bond and a long-call option is a standard approach for principal-protected structured products.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
During a period of heightened market volatility, a particular SiMSCI futures contract experiences a rapid price movement, reaching its daily price limit of 15% from the previous day’s settlement price early in the trading session. What is the immediate procedural consequence for this contract’s trading activity, according to its specifications?
Correct
The provided contract specifications for the MSCI Singapore Free Index (SiMSCI) futures contract explicitly state the procedure when its daily price limit is reached. When the price moves by 15% in either direction from the previous day’s settlement price, trading at or within this price limit is allowed for the next 10 minutes. This serves as a cooling-off period. Following this 10-minute period, there shall be no price limits for the remainder of that trading day. This mechanism allows the market to absorb the significant price movement and then continue trading without artificial constraints, reflecting the current market environment. The other options describe scenarios that are not aligned with the specific rules for SiMSCI futures contracts as outlined, such as immediate suspension, automatic widening to a different percentage, or fixing the settlement price prematurely.
Incorrect
The provided contract specifications for the MSCI Singapore Free Index (SiMSCI) futures contract explicitly state the procedure when its daily price limit is reached. When the price moves by 15% in either direction from the previous day’s settlement price, trading at or within this price limit is allowed for the next 10 minutes. This serves as a cooling-off period. Following this 10-minute period, there shall be no price limits for the remainder of that trading day. This mechanism allows the market to absorb the significant price movement and then continue trading without artificial constraints, reflecting the current market environment. The other options describe scenarios that are not aligned with the specific rules for SiMSCI futures contracts as outlined, such as immediate suspension, automatic widening to a different percentage, or fixing the settlement price prematurely.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
When an investor anticipates a moderate upward movement in the price of an underlying security and simultaneously wishes to reduce the net cost of establishing a bullish position while capping potential losses, which options strategy would be most suitable?
Correct
A bull call spread is constructed by simultaneously buying an in-the-money (ITM) call option and selling a higher-strike out-of-the-money (OTM) call option on the same underlying security with the same expiration date. This strategy is employed when an options trader has a moderately bullish market view, expecting the price of the underlying asset to increase, but not excessively. By selling the OTM call, the investor reduces the initial debit (net cost) of the position compared to a naked long call, and also caps the maximum potential loss. However, this also limits the maximum potential profit. A long strangle, conversely, is a volatility strategy designed to profit from a large price movement in either direction, not a moderate upward trend, and involves a higher initial outlay for two OTM options. A naked long call is a purely bullish strategy but typically has a higher initial cost and does not inherently cap potential losses in the same way a spread does by offsetting with a short option. A bear put spread is a bearish strategy, designed to profit from a decline in the underlying asset’s price, which is contrary to the investor’s objective.
Incorrect
A bull call spread is constructed by simultaneously buying an in-the-money (ITM) call option and selling a higher-strike out-of-the-money (OTM) call option on the same underlying security with the same expiration date. This strategy is employed when an options trader has a moderately bullish market view, expecting the price of the underlying asset to increase, but not excessively. By selling the OTM call, the investor reduces the initial debit (net cost) of the position compared to a naked long call, and also caps the maximum potential loss. However, this also limits the maximum potential profit. A long strangle, conversely, is a volatility strategy designed to profit from a large price movement in either direction, not a moderate upward trend, and involves a higher initial outlay for two OTM options. A naked long call is a purely bullish strategy but typically has a higher initial cost and does not inherently cap potential losses in the same way a spread does by offsetting with a short option. A bear put spread is a bearish strategy, designed to profit from a decline in the underlying asset’s price, which is contrary to the investor’s objective.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
An investor anticipates a significant downturn in a specific market sector and wishes to profit from this decline without directly short-selling individual stocks. Which type of Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) would best suit this investment strategy?
Correct
Inverse ETFs, also known as short or bear ETFs, are designed to replicate the performance of a specified index but in the opposite direction. This means they aim to profit when the underlying benchmark declines in value, making them suitable for investors anticipating a market downturn. Leveraged ETFs, while also exotic, aim to amplify returns (or losses) of an underlying index, typically by a constant multiple, but not specifically to profit from declines in the opposite direction. Commodity ETFs track the performance of various commodities, and Index ETFs passively track a market index, neither of which inherently profits from a market decline in the manner described.
Incorrect
Inverse ETFs, also known as short or bear ETFs, are designed to replicate the performance of a specified index but in the opposite direction. This means they aim to profit when the underlying benchmark declines in value, making them suitable for investors anticipating a market downturn. Leveraged ETFs, while also exotic, aim to amplify returns (or losses) of an underlying index, typically by a constant multiple, but not specifically to profit from declines in the opposite direction. Commodity ETFs track the performance of various commodities, and Index ETFs passively track a market index, neither of which inherently profits from a market decline in the manner described.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
During a critical transition period where existing processes are being tested by extreme market movements, a particular futures contract’s price rapidly declines and settles at its daily limit bid. In such a scenario, what action might the exchange typically take regarding the price limits for the upcoming trading session?
Correct
When a futures contract’s price reaches its daily limit bid or offer, it indicates significant market movement. To ensure that the market can properly reflect current conditions and facilitate transactions, exchanges often have mechanisms to adjust these limits. As per the CMFAS Module 6A syllabus, specifically regarding futures markets, if a contract settles at its limit bid or offer, the exchange may widen the limit for the subsequent trading session. This action aims to allow for more price discovery and help the futures prices adjust to a level that accurately reflects the prevailing market environment. Indefinite suspension of trading, automatic cancellation of all orders, or permanent removal of limits are not the standard or immediate responses described for merely hitting a daily price limit.
Incorrect
When a futures contract’s price reaches its daily limit bid or offer, it indicates significant market movement. To ensure that the market can properly reflect current conditions and facilitate transactions, exchanges often have mechanisms to adjust these limits. As per the CMFAS Module 6A syllabus, specifically regarding futures markets, if a contract settles at its limit bid or offer, the exchange may widen the limit for the subsequent trading session. This action aims to allow for more price discovery and help the futures prices adjust to a level that accurately reflects the prevailing market environment. Indefinite suspension of trading, automatic cancellation of all orders, or permanent removal of limits are not the standard or immediate responses described for merely hitting a daily price limit.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
In a scenario where an investor holding a short Extended Settlement (ES) contract position fails to deliver the underlying shares by the stipulated due date, what is the immediate market action initiated to fulfill this obligation, and what is the typical starting point for determining the price of such an action?
Correct
When an investor fails to deliver shares for a short Extended Settlement (ES) contract position by the due date, the Central Depository (CDP) is responsible for initiating a ‘buy-in’ process on the market. This action commences the day after the due date (LTD + 4). The starting price for this buy-in is specifically determined by taking two minimum bids above the highest of the following three values: the closing price of the previous day, the current last done price, or the current bid. This mechanism ensures the physical delivery obligation is met. Other options incorrectly describe the responsible entity, the timing of the action, or the method of price determination.
Incorrect
When an investor fails to deliver shares for a short Extended Settlement (ES) contract position by the due date, the Central Depository (CDP) is responsible for initiating a ‘buy-in’ process on the market. This action commences the day after the due date (LTD + 4). The starting price for this buy-in is specifically determined by taking two minimum bids above the highest of the following three values: the closing price of the previous day, the current last done price, or the current bid. This mechanism ensures the physical delivery obligation is met. Other options incorrectly describe the responsible entity, the timing of the action, or the method of price determination.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
In a scenario where an investor seeks enhanced income from a structured product, they are presented with an instrument constructed from a long zero-coupon bond and a short put option. This product is issued at face value, offers a capped upside, and exposes the investor to the full extent of losses if the underlying asset declines significantly. What is a key characteristic of the risk-return profile for this type of structured product?
Correct
The question describes a Reverse Convertible. This structured product is characterized by its composition of a long zero-coupon bond and a short put option. Investors are attracted by enhanced yields, which come from the interest accretion of the zero-coupon bond and the premium received from selling the put option. However, the upside performance is capped, meaning the investor’s potential gain is limited. Crucially, the downside risk is significant; if the underlying asset’s price falls substantially, the investor faces losses to the full extent of that fall, potentially losing the entire investment sum. This creates an asymmetric return profile where positive upside is capped, but the full investment amount is exposed to downside risk.
Incorrect
The question describes a Reverse Convertible. This structured product is characterized by its composition of a long zero-coupon bond and a short put option. Investors are attracted by enhanced yields, which come from the interest accretion of the zero-coupon bond and the premium received from selling the put option. However, the upside performance is capped, meaning the investor’s potential gain is limited. Crucially, the downside risk is significant; if the underlying asset’s price falls substantially, the investor faces losses to the full extent of that fall, potentially losing the entire investment sum. This creates an asymmetric return profile where positive upside is capped, but the full investment amount is exposed to downside risk.
Hi there, Dario here. Your dedicated account manager. Thank you again for taking a leap of faith and investing in yourself today. I will be shooting you some emails about study tips and how to prepare for the exam and maximize the study efficiency with CMFASExam. You will also find a support feedback board below where you can send us feedback anytime if you have any uncertainty about the questions you encounter. Remember, practice makes perfect. Please take all our practice questions at least 2 times to yield a higher chance to pass the exam